I have often read that Goodness-of-fit should always be assessed on the most general model (e.g. Ch. 4 & Ch. 5 from MARK manual). If a most general model fits data adequately, then also a nested model should fit data well, so, for instance, if model {Phi(t) p(t)} fits well, also {Phi(.) p(.)} does.
On the other hand, I have read here* that even they analysed data by using a multi-event approach on three underlying states (death or transient, alive male, alive female) they tested the GOF of the simple CJS model, i.e. a model not accounting for sex-states but only for alive or death. Authors comment on this: “On the basis of GOF test results, we calculated a variance inflation factor to be used in the models. This is conservative as the goodness-of-fit test is for a more general model with stronger assumptions (e.g. no sex or age differences)”.
I must be missing the point because on one side I find this makes sense but on the other CJS model is clearly less parameterized with respect to the models they are running that do account for sex.
It seems the most general model is not necessarily the most parameterized. I would appreciate very much if someone might shed some light on this.
*Genovart, M., Pradel, R., & Oro, D. (2012). Exploiting uncertain ecological fieldwork data with multi-event capture-recapture modelling: an example with bird sex assignment. Journal of animal ecology, 81, 970–977