I have 3 years of data, 3 surveys per year, for a bunch of bird species. I can't quite understand what the difference is if I run, per species:
a single-season occupancy model where I stack the data, so that there is a total of 3 visits and year is a covariate (so the 3 years are stacked)
or
A multi-season occupancy model where I display the data as 3 seasons, 3 visits each, for a total of 9 surveys.
For the single-season model I ran it with year as a covariate (detection constant), and for the multi-season model I used the parametrization that derives yearly occupancy and colonization, and applied a year effect to occupancy (colonization and detection constant).
In running the two models, I got very similar estimates of occupancy for each of the three years (.87, .97, .99 versus .86, .99, .97). The confidence intervals were tighter using the single season model.
All I want out of this is estimates of occupancy; I'm not particularly interested in year effects (although obviously I want to account for yearly changes) or colonization/extinction rates; rather, the habitat covariates are my primary interest and they don't change over time (aka, no treatment was applied during the 3 years or other major changes- I would only expect weather-related impacts).
I realize there is pseudo-replication with including the same sites over and over again as separate observations in the single-season model, but I can deal with that by using UTMs (transformed) as a covariate, I didn't mention it above for simplicity. Otherwise, my basic question remains- what is the difference, exactly? thanks for any help, this has been troubling me for a while now!