I've been trying to figure out how to get correct variance estimates when you're averaging model betas, and the effect in question doesn't appear in all models. Getting the correct model-averaged beta is simple - you just set the estimate for models without this effect to zero (Burnham & Anderson 2004, Sociological Methods & Reseacrh 33, 261-304). However, things are not as simple for the model-averaged variance. If you set both estimated beat and variance to zero when the effect doesn't appear, and if the summed w(i) for that effect is low, the result is a model-averaged variance smaller than for models including the effect. This seems inappropriate. The alternative is averaging the variance only over models where the particular effect appears, i.e. has a non-zero estimate and variance, but I haven't been able to find any references recommending this - and it seems inconsistent with the way the model-averaged beta is derived.
Does anybody have any ideas?
Morten